Hi Humans,
I know I have been talking about this on previous blog entries, but I thought I would summarize what it all means. Gun homicides in the course of robberies occurs more often in poor countries. It has been shown that in the USA and in other developed countries (Western Europe, British Isles, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and Japan) the per cent of homicides that occur in the course of robberies are relatively small. There is also a direct correlation between gun ownership and homicides per population. The USA has the most gun owners in the developed countries and the most homicides. The UK has extremely low gun ownership and extremely low homicides. So if the vast majority of homicides do not occur in the course of robberies, when and by whom do they occur? Most homicides are done by friends, neighbors, and relatives who fly off the handle in disputes and have access to guns. Drinking alcohol can lower the threshold. Gangs members sometimes shoot and kill members of rival gangs for whatever reason. Most mass murders in the USA (like Sandy Hook) were done by people who obtained guns legally (according to the laws in America as they are today). So the argument by the NRA and the gun lobby that more private gun owners means more protection from gun violence is simply self serving nonsense. The facts show that as far as safety of life and limb goes, there is greater danger of being killed or maimed in the USA by a "legal" gun owner who goes beserk than by a robber. But what do I know? I'm just a dog.
Chloe
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